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Every answer you need to know to pass the NCLEX-RN and NCLEX-PN! Study two hours a day for seven days.
NCLEX-RN-Flash contains 3000 printed flash memory cards, presenting nursing facts in all NCLEX-RN categories.
NCLEX-RN-Flash was created by students who recently passed nursing boards. These cards are also available in all bookstores. These cards are the number one speed-review method for the 2009 examination. Memory cards are categorized by subject – nursing skills, nursing sciences, medical, surgical, maternal, infant, pediatrics, and, mental health.
These are actual cards, printed on both sides, with answers on the back. This is not a CD. These cards are printed on card paper.
According to the most recent NCLEX guideline report, these questions will be on the NCLEX-RN.
Sample Flash Card Questions
What is the most common cause of hyperkalemia?
Chronic renal failure.
What are the clinical signs of hypercalcemia?
Nausea, vomiting, confusion, abdominal or flank pain, constipation, lethargy, depression, weakness, muscleaches, polyuria, headache
What conditions may precipitate an acute adrenal crisis?
Surgery, severe injury, myocardial infarction, or severe infection in a patient with primary or secondary adrenal insufficiency.
What are the causes of thyrotoxicosis?
Gravis disease, acute thyroiditis, thyroid hormone overdose.
How does propranolol affect blood glucose levels in diabetic patients?
Propranolol may cause hyperglycemia.
What is the prognosis for a patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
Death occurs within 10 years. Lou Gehrig’s disease is caused by progressive loss of function of motor neurons, resulting in muscular atrophy and weakness.
What is decerebrate posturing?
Elbows and legs are extended because of a midbrain lesion.
What is decorticate posturing?
Elbows are flexed, legs are extended, indicating a lesion in the thalamic region.
What are the properties of the Glasgow Coma Scale?
Eye opening, verbal activity, and motor activity. 4 points for each category.
What are partial seizures?
Partial seizures begin at a single focus and may spread. The seizure initially affects only part of the body.
What is the probability that a child will develop Huntington’s chorea if her father has the disease?
50%. Autosomal dominant inheritance; characterized by uncoordinated, jerky movements and a decline in mental abilities in the mid-forties.
A 35-year old woman with episodes of weakness when chewing, ptosis, diplopia, and dysarthria. Muscle weakness with repetitive exercise. What is the diagnosis?
Myasthenia gravis. Autoimmune antibodies against acetylcholine receptors in the neuromuscular junction. Anticholinesterase therapy increases acetylcholine and relieves symptoms.
What is the most common cause of resting tremor?
Parkinson disease. Tremors are asymmetrical and have a “pill rolling” characteristic. Cogwheel rigidity, mask face, shuffling gait, bradykinesia.
What organ is damaged by acetaminophen toxicity?
Liver
Cyanide poisoning may occur with which antihypertensive agent?
Nitroprusside. Sodium thiosulfate should be infused with sodium nitroprusside at a ratio of 10:1, thiosulfate to nitroprusside.
Which immune cell is the primary target of HIV?
HIV attacks the T4 helper cells.
What is the length of the asymptomatic period after HIV infection?
The mean incubation time is 10 years. 5% of HIV infected patients develop symptoms within three years of seroconversion.
What are the most common causes of fever in HIV-infected patients?
Primary HIV-related fever, Mycobacterium avium complex, Cytomegalovirus, and non-Hodgkin’s and Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
What is the most common cause of focal encephalitis in AIDS?
Toxoplasmosis, presenting as focal neurologic deficits, headache, fever, altered mental status, seizures, ring enhancing lesions on CT.
What is the most common opportunistic infection in AIDS patients?
Pneumocystis jirovecchii pneumonia, presenting with a nonproductive cough and dyspnea. Chest X-ray: diffuse interstitial infiltrates or normal.
What is the clinical presentation of tracheoesophageal fistula?
The newborn attempts to feed normally, then begins to cough, choke, and becomes cyanotic as swallowed milk returns through the nose and mouth.
What is the best position for the child when irrigating his mouth following cleft palate surgery?
Sitting up with the head forward to prevent aspiration and choking.
Why is it important to keep gastric tubes clamped when not being used for infusion of enteral nutrition?
To prevent air from entering the stomach.
What is a transesophageal fistula?
Upper esophagus ends in a blind pouch, and a fistula connects the trachea and the lower esophagus.
What symptoms indicate that an inguinal hernia is incarcerated?
Hernia cannot be reduced; redness, swelling, and extreme pain at the hernia site.
What disorder is associated with meconium in the urine?
Rectourinary fistula.
What electrolyte imbalances occur after prolonged vomiting?
Hypokalemia, hyponatremia, hypochloremia, and metabolic alkylosis.
What gauge needle is best for injection of infants?
25 to 27 gauge. 1/2 inch to 1 inch in length.
What clinical signs indicate Hirschsprung’s disease?
Abdominal distention and failure to pass meconium within 48 hours of birth.
What assessments help to determine an infant’s hydration status?
Intake and output, skin compliance, urine specific gravity, and daily weight.
Why is inguinal hernia repair done on an asymptomatic infant?
Prevention of incarcerated bowel and prevention of enlargement of the hernia.
What is the location for palpation of a pyloric tumor?
Right upper quadrant.
What is the character of stools associated with intussusception?
Currant jelly stools because of inflammation and hemorrhage.
What are the signs of the return of bowel function after a surgical ileus?
Bowel sounds, passing of stool or gas, decreased abdominal distention.
Why does the vomitus of an infant with pyloric stenosis not contain bile?
The obstruction is proximal to the ampulla of Vater.
When can a child begin taking a bath after a surgical incision?
One week after surgery. Sponge baths should be given in the first week.
What is the most common cancer in women?
Lung cancer; breast cancer is second; colorectal cancer is third.
What are the American Cancer Society recommendation for mammography?
Every 1-2 years after age 40, annually after age 50.
What are the American Cancer Society recommendations for PAP smears?
Annually for 3 years, starting at age 18 or when the patient becomes sexually active; then every 1-3 years.
What are the contraindications to oral contraceptives?
Myocardial infarction, history of smoking, liver tumors, breast cancer, heart disease, vascular disease, or a prior thromboembolism.
What are the risk factors for ectopic pregnancy?
History of pelvic inflammatory device, PID, intrauterine device, previous ectopic pregnancy.
When does ectopic pregnancy most commonly present?
6-8 weeks, presenting with amenorrhea and abdominal or pelvic pain, positive beta-hCG, and an ultrasound showing an absence of an intrauterine gestational sac.
What is the risk of a repeat ectopic pregnancy?
10-15%.
What magnesium sulfate level toxic?
Loss of reflexes occurs at levels >8 mEq/l, and respiratory arrest occurs at levels >12 mEq/l.
Which drug is used to treat eclampsia?
Magnesium sulfate 4-6 g IV bolus, followed by a 2 g/h infusion.
How does ovulation affect basal body temperature?
Ovulation causes a 0.4 degree F rise in basal body temperature, and this is the best time to try to conceive.
A breast-feeding mother is complaining of fever, chills, and a swollen red breast. What is the most likely organism?
Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of mastitis. Mastitis is most often seen 3-4 weeks post partum.
What is menorrhagia?
Excessive amount of blood or duration
What is metrorrhagia (hypermenorrhea)?
Bleeding between menstrual periods
What is menometrorrhagia?
Excessive amount of blood at irregular frequencies
What is oligomenorrhea?
Menstrual periods >35 days apart.
What is polymenorrhea?
Menstrual periods <21 days apart.
What two organisms cause most cases of pelvic inflammatory disease?
Neisseria gonorrhea and Chlamydia trachomatis.
What are the risk factors for placenta previa?
Previous cesarean section, previous placenta previa, multiparity, multiple induced abortions, and multiple gestation.
When does a mother begin to feel fetal movement?
Week 16-20
When can a Doppler detect fetal heart tones?
The twelfth week
When can ultrasound detect an intrauterine fetal pole?
Fifth to seventh week.
What percentage of pregnant women have a systolic murmur ?
90% of all pregnant women will have a systolic murmur.
What is the average maternal weight gain during a single pregnancy?
25-30 lbs
What is akathisia?
A sense of internal restlessness.
What is echolalia?
Automatic repetition of the words of another person immediately after hearing the words.
What is catalepsy?
Maintaining the same rigid posture over a long period of time.
What is waxy flexibility?
Resistance to change in position, then gradually allowing movement.
What is the ratio of attempted suicides to completed suicides?
10 :1.
What are the most commonly used anticholinergic medications?
Antihistamines, tricyclic antidepressants, phenothiazines and antiparkinsonian drugs, atropine.
What are the clinical signs of lithium toxicity?
Tremor, weakness, and flattening of the T-waves.
How is Wernicke’s encephalopathy treated?
Thiamine IV.
What volatile substance is the most commonly abused?
Toluene
What is the effect of imipramine on thirst?
Imipramine causes dry mouth and increased fluid consumption. Dry mouth is a side effect of tricyclics, and increased fluid intake may cause hyponatremia.
What is the neurologic adverse reaction to haloperidol (Haldol)?
Extrapyramidal effects: dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia. Dystonias are muscular contractions. Parkinsonism is the triad of tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia.
What is akathisia?
Restlessness and inability to sit still, which is an extrapyramidal side effect of neuroleptics.
What are the major goals of a psychosocial rehabilitation program?
Teaching independent living skills, assisting with living arrangements, and arranging for access to community resources.
What is a compulsion?
Repetitive behavior or mental act that a person feels driven to perform. Substitution of unacceptable emotions with a more acceptable activity.
Which person or authoritative group has the most influence on adolescent’s behavior?
The peers of the adolescent.
What is a reaction formation?
A defense mechanism where unacceptable emotions are substituted with exaggerated positive feelings.
What is projection?
A defense mechanism where the patient attributes her own negative traits to another person.
What is an alcoholic blackout?
Phenomenon caused by alcohol intoxication in which long-term memory creation is impaired. A blackout can persist for several days or longer. Not to be confused with “passing out”.
What is rationalization?
Defense mechanism whereby an acceptable reason is used to explain an unacceptable behavior.
What are the initial assessments after a heroin overdose?
Assess airway, breathing, and circulation.
What are the clinical signs of nasal cocaine insufflation?
Red, inflamed nostrils, dilated pupils, anxiety, and tachycardia.
What drug is often abused for weight control?
Amphetamine
What are the clinical signs of long-term amphetamine abuse?
Emotional lability, depression, drug dependency, hallucinations, and delusions.
What are the clinical manifests of anorexia nervosa?
Weight 15% below normal, emaciation, fear of gaining weight, distorted self-imaging, amenorrhea, abdominal pain, syncope.
Created by Cynthia Davis, RN
This memorization system is based on brain synaptogenesis. Each card stimulates the formation of one memory circuit. |